Infinitely Many Primes
Theorem 1
In the ring Z, there are infinitely many prime numbers.
Proof:
Consider a series of positive prime number [p1,p2...pn] where pn is the largest prime number.
We shall have p=(p1p2p3...pn)+1>1. And p is not divisible by any prime number in list.
So either p is yet another prime number larger than pn, or p can be divide by a prime larger than p. By any case, we can have a larger prime given a largest prime yet.
Actually, in any Euclidean Domain, there are infinitely many primes (irreducible).
Consider a p∈Z as a prime and a set of rational number a/b,p∤b as Zp. Zp shall be a ring and when p∤a, a/b will be a unit.
Therefore, there is only one prime in Zp and in form of pc/d where c/d is a unit.
If a/b∈Zp and not a unit, a/b+1 shall be a unit.
Proof:
Since a/b is not a unit, so we can write a=pl∗a′ where p∤a′.
So a/b+1=(a+1)/b=(pla′+1)/p. Obviously p∤(pla′+1). So (a+1)/b is a unit.
Square Free
Proposition 1
An integer a∈Z is said to be square free if it is not divisible by the square of any other integer except 1.
If n∈Z can be written in form of n=ab2, where a,b∈Z and a is square-free.
Proof:
Consider a=p1r1p2r2...plrl and r is either 0 or 1. b=p1b1p2b2...plbl.
Then n=ab2=∏i=1n(pi2bi+ri). Since 2bi+ri can represent any integer, so proved.
Divisor function
Define ν(n) as the number of positive divisors of n and σ(n) as the sum of positive divisors of n.
Let a be a positive integer, n=p1a1p2a2...plal as its prime decomposition. ν(n)=(a1+1)(a2+1)...(al+1)
σ(n)=((p1a1+1−1)/(p1−1))((p2a2+1−1)/(p2−1))...((plal+1−1)/(pl−1))
Proof:
A divisor is in form of m=p1b1p2b2...plbl where 0≤bi≤ai for i=1,2,...,l. So the number of combination shall be (a1+1)(a2+1)...(al+1). σ(n)=∑p1b1p2b2...plbl=b1=0∑a1p1b1b2=0∑a2p2b2...bl=0∑alplbl
Perfect
This problem is related to Mersenne Prime. A perfect number is defined as σ(n)=2n. If a Mersenne prime 2m+1=1 is a prime, 2m(2m+1−1) will be perfect.
For multiplicative perfect, σ(n)=n2. So it is obvious that iff there are 2 divisors. For example, cube of prime or products of 2 distinct prime.
Möbius function
For n∈Z+, Möbius function μ(1)=1,μ(n)=0 if n is not square-free. And μ(p1p2...pn)=(−1)n.
That is:
- If n is a square-free positive integer and even number of prime factors, μ(n)=1;
- If n is a square-free positive integer and odd number of prime factors, μ(n)=−1;
- If n has a squared prime factor,μ(n)=0.
Proposition 2
If n>1 and ∑d∣nμ(d)=0.
Proof:
Let n=p1a1p2a2...plal. For those factors ai>1, it will turn to be zero. So we can consider: n=p1p2p3...pl Then consider number of different type of d as α(i). For example, α(1) is the number of d that only formed by 1 prime factor. α(i)=(il) And the μ(d) of those type of d are all the same: μ(di)=(−1)i So, our sum shall be: d∣n∑μ(d)=i=0∑l(−1)i(il)
d∣n∑μ(d)=1−(1l)+(2l)−(3l)...(−1)l(ll)=0
Dirichlet Convolution
The Dirichlet convolution of f,g is defined by the formular f∗g(n)=∑f(d1)g(d2), where the sum is over all pair of (d1,d2) which d1d2=n.
It is obvious that the Dirichlet product is associative and communitive.
Define I that I(1)=1 and I(n)=0 for n>1. Then, f∗I=I∗f=f. Define I(n)=1 for n∈Z+.
Lemma 1
I∗μ=μ∗I=I
Proof:
For n=1, it is obvious. For n>1, μ∗I(n)=∑d∣nμ(d)=0 by Proposition 2.
Theorem 2
Let F(n)=∑d∣nf(d). Then f(n)=∑d∣nμ(d)F(n/d).
Proof:
By definition, F=I∗f(n). As we know: f(n)=f∗I=f∗(I∗μ)=(f∗I)∗μ=F∗μ.
This theorem works in any abelian group. This law also works when written multiplicatively. F(n)=d∣n∏f(d)⟹f(n)=d∣n∏F(n/d)μ(d)
Euler's totient function
Define Euler ϕ function that for n∈Z+, ϕ is the number of relatively prime number between 1 to prime.
Proposition 2
∑d∣nϕ(d)=n
Proof:
Consider a series of rational number n1,n2...nn.
Put them into lowest term, we shall see, all the fraction with n as denominator are in number of ϕ(n). And for each factor d of n, there will be ϕ(d) number fractions. So all fraction can be split into subsets of size ϕ(d) for all d that d∣n.
Proposition 3
ϕ(n)=n(1−p11)(1−p21)...(1−pl1) for n=p1a1p2a2...plal
Proof:
By mobius inversion theorem (Theorem 2), we shall see ϕ(n)=d∣n∑μ(d)dn
ϕ(n)=n−i∑pin+i,j∑pipjn−i,j,k∑pipjpkn...(−1)l1,2,3,...l∑p1p2...pln
Sum of 1/p Diverges
Prove ∑p1 diverges where p is positive prime.
Proof:
Consider a function λ(n)=p∏1−p−11 Where p are primes less than n.
Then take log on both side: logλ(n)=−p∑log(1−p−1) Expand log with Tylor Series: logλ(n)=p∑i∑∞ipi1 This can be consider as: logλ(n)=p∑p1+21p∑p21... This first part is what we need.
Since ∑n21 converges, so ∑pp21 converges too, as same as the rest parts.
For each part of λ(n), 1−p−11>1 so when n→∞, λ(n)→∞, as well as logλ(n)→∞.
So the first part of logλ(n) must diverges.
The same proof works for k[x]. We need to consider prime as monic irreducible polynomials and the size of monic polynomial by qdegf(x)