Q1
Prove there are infinitely many primes such that p≡−1(6).
Proof:
We need to prove there are infinitely many prime such that 6∣(p+1)⟹p=6k−1
Assume there are finite primes such that p=6k−1. There will be a new prime q=6(p1p2...pn)−1. This shows q is yet another prime. So there are infinitely many primes.
Q3
For a series ai, we can represent any decimal in ∑i=0ai10i. Prove that if 3∣∑i=0ai or 9∣∑i=0ai ,the decimal will be divisible by 3 or 9. Also true for 11∣∑i=1(−1)iai.
Proof:
It is obviously that 10i≡1(3) and 10i≡1(9). And ai10i≡ai(3). So if ∑ai10i≡∑ai(3).
Also 10≡10(11) and 100≡1(11) that is 10i≡(−1)i(11).
Q4,5
Prove 3x2+2=y2 and 7x3+2=y3 have no solutions.
Proof
Consider 3x3+2≡y2(3) We already have 3x2≡0(3), so 2≡y2(3).
For mod 3, we have 02≡0(3),12≡1(3),22≡1(3). So y2≡2(3) is impossible.
Consider 7x3+2≡y3(7) We need to show 2≡y3(7).
It is impossible cause y3(7) is 0,1,6.
Q6
If a group integers a1,a2,a3,...,aϕ(n) such that (ai,n)=1. We will have (a,n)=1 and aa1,aa2,...,aaϕ(n) such that (aai,n)=1.
Proof:
It is obvious that (a,n)=1,(b,n)=1⟹(ab,n)=1.
On the other hand, assume a U(n)={a1,a2,...,aϕ(n)}. {aai} is just a permutation of U(n).
Q7
Prove Euler's Theorem.
Proof:
Assume A=aia2a3...aϕ(n) and aϕ(n)A=aa1aa2...aaϕ(n). That is $$
By Q6: aϕ(n)A≡A(n). Also since (A,n)=1, so it's safe to cancel A on both side. aϕ(n)≡1(n)
Q8
Let p is an odd prime. If k∈{1,2,...,p−1}, there will be a unique bk such that kbk≡1(p).
Proof Since p is prime, we have (k,p)=1.
So by Fermat's little theorem: kp−1≡1(p) So we have a solution bk=kp−2
Assume there are another solution kbk′≡1(p). k(bk−bk′)≡0(p) That is p∣(bk−bk′) which is unique in mod p system, thus bk−bk′=0.
In this way, when k=1,k=p−1, k=bk.
Q9
Prove (p−1)!≡−1(p).
Proof:
From Q8, we know that there are pairs in 1,2...p−1. For each pair, we have kbk≡1(p). Except k=1,k=p−1. Since p−1≡−1(p).
So (p−1)!≡−1(p).
Q10
Prove (n−1)!≡0(n) if n is not prime, except when n=4.
Proof:
In general, n=ab where a<n,b<n. So ab∣(n−1)!
When n=4, (n−1)!=1∗2∗3=6. So 6≡2(4). The reason 4 is an exception is that the only composition 4=2∗2 and 2 is only shown once in 3!.
Q11
For a reduced residue system modulo n: {a1,a2,...,aϕ(n)}. Assume N is the number of solutions of x2≡1(n). Show that a1a2...aϕ(n)≡(−1)N/2(n).
Proof:
By Wilson's Theorem in Q9, we can notice that in a reduced residue system, for each k∈{ai}, we will have a bk as it's inverse so kbk≡1(n), except when k2≡1(n).
Consider n=∏piai.
Given that each piai will provide a residue system modulo that ∏ai≡−1(n) since k2≡1(n) will provide 2 solutions (1,n−1). When n=2, the product will be 1, that will not affect anything.
Then there will be (−1)N/2 .
Q12
Prove that p∣(kp), 0<k<p
Proof:
By definition: (kp)=k!(p−k)!p! Since p!=(p−1)!∗p. And p is prime. So no factors in k!(p−k)! since k<p,p−k<p. So p in upper fraction must remain. That is p∣(kp)
Q13
Prove Fermat's Theorem
Proof:
By Q12, consider : (a+1)p−ap−1=k=1∑p−1(kp)ap−k Since we know that p∣(kp) so each part in the sum can be divided by p.
That is: (a+1)p≡ap+1(p) When a=0, obviously 1≡1(p) .
When a>0, assume ap≡a(p) (Fermat). We need to prove for a+1 it still hold. (a+1)p≡a+1(p) Since we already have ap≡a(p). So: (a+1)p≡ap+1(p) That is just we proved before.
So Fermat's Theorem holds.
Q14
For p,q are distinct odd primes such that p−1∣q−1. Also if (n,pq)=1, prove that nq−1≡1(pq).
Proof:
By Fermat's Theorem: np−1≡1(p)
nq−1≡1(q)
Where nq−1=nk(p−1)
So we have nq−1≡1(p) That gives: nq−1≡1(pq)
Q15
Prove the numerator of 1+1/2+1/3...1/p−1 is divisible by p where p is prime.
Proof: numerator=i=2∑pip! Obviously, each term is still integer and all divisible by p.
Q17
Prove for f(x)∈Z[x] and n=∏piai, prove that f(x)≡0(n) has a solution iff f(x)≡0(piai) has solution for all i
Proof:
If f(x)≡0(n), we have n∣f(x). So for all piai∣f(x) that is f(x)≡0(piai)
If f(x)≡0(piai), by Chinese Reminder Theorem, (piai,pjaj)=1, then f(x)≡0(∏piai) have a unique solution.
Q18
If there are Ni solutions for f(x)≡0(piai). Then there are ∏Ni solutions for f(x)≡0(n).
Proof:
By Chinese Reminder Theorem, for each group of equations: {x≡xi(piai)} There are one unique solution. So there are ∏Ni different equations set. So there are ∏Ni unique solutions for f(x)≡0(n)
Q19
Show that x2≡1(pa) has only solutions {1,−1}.
Proof:
We need to show the solution of: (x+1)(x−1)≡0(pa) The difference of (x+1),(x−1) is 2, which is smaller than any pa.
That is, (x+1)(x−1) cannot contain more than 1 p as factor.
That is, there are only 2 solution x=1,x=−1.
Q20
Show that x2≡1(2b) has one solution when b=1 and 2 solution when b=2 and four solution when b≥3.
Proof: (x+1)(x−1)≡0(2b) When b=1, {1,−1} are same solutions in mod 2.
When b=2, {1,−1} two solutions.
When b≥3, (x−1),(x+1) can be two even number in sequence. So when x=2b−1−1 or x=2p−1+1 will also be valid solutions.
Q21
Find the number of solutions x2≡1(n)
Proof:
For the factorization of n n=∏piai.
Assume ν(piai) is the solution number of x2≡1(piai).
For pi=2 ν(2)=1;ν(22)=2;ν(2a)=3,a≥3 For other pi, ν(piai)=2.
So the solution will be: ν(n)=∏ν(piai)
Q23
Prove a+bi≡0(1+i) or a+bi≡1(1+i)
Proof:
Assume p+qi such that: (p+qi)(1+i)=a+bi
(2a+b+2b−a)(1+i)=a+bi
So when a+b and b−a are both even, there are a+bi≡0(1+i)
Assume p+qi such that: (p+qi)(1+i)=a−1+bi
(2a+b−1+2b−a+1i)(1+i)=a−1+bi
So when a+b and b−a are odd, we have a+bi≡1(1+i)
If a,b are both even, a+b and b−a shall both be even.
If a,b are both odd, a+b and b−a shall both be even.
In other situation, a+b and b−a shall both be odd.
Q24
Prove a+bω≡{−1,1,0}(1−ω)
Proof:
By definition ω2+ω+1=0. ω≡1(1−ω)
a+bω≡a+b(1−ω)
So this can be represent to any congruences.
The order of 1−ω is (1−ω)(1+ωˉ)=(1−ω)(1−ω2)=2−ω−ω2=3
So this is equal to mod 3: {0,1,2}
Where 2≡−1(3)
Q25
For λ=1−ω, α≡1(λ), prove that α3≡1(9)
Proof:
First we shall see: −ω2(1−ω)2=−3ω(1+ω)=3 Then we assume: α=1+λ
α3=1+3λ+3λ2+λ3
α3=1−ω2λ3−ω2λ4+λ3
We need to show that the last three part is divisible by 9. λ4=9ω2;λ3=−3(2ω+1) So we need to prove that 3∣−(1−ω2)(2ω+1) Obviously −(ω+2)(2ω+1)=3ω
Q26
For ζ,η,ξ∈Z[ω] such that η3+ζ3+ξ3=0 , λ must divides at least one of them.
Proof:
It is obvious there are only 3 reminder for α≡{1,−1,0}(λ).
By Q25, α3=9k+{1,−1,0}
So η3+ζ3+ξ3=0 is equivalent to η+ζ+ξ=0
That is at least one of them is η≡0(λ)